Adjudicator Professional Certification Practice Test

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• Within how many days of receiving an individual's response to a Statement of Reasons (SOR) should final clearance determinations be made?
• Which action is governed by the Privacy Act of 1974?
• Which policy area is covered by E.O. 13764?
• Which tier is described as handling High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• Which is not an indicator of espionage?
• True or False: Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 4 have clearance eligibility.
• Which case addresses following its own regulations, even if more restrictive than the law requires?
• Which E.O. requires that the level of a covered individual's investigation be determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security?
• What is the purpose of ICPG 704.3?
• What can be expected when confidential information is released?
• What is the waiting period before requesting reconsideration after an unfavorable determination?
• What is a vulnerability?
• Define nolo contendere.
• What does RADAR stand for?
• What is the whole-of-government approach to reform the personnel security process and to establish a single vetting system for the U.S. Government?
• The level of a covered individual's investigation is determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security. This statement is:
• Guideline B addresses which concern?
• Which kind of CVR will an adjudicator not attach to an SIR?
• What is LAA?
• Which executive order created new standards for the process of identifying and protecting classified information?
• Who develops policy, guidance, and oversight for the DoD PSP?
• One effect of IRTPA is to streamline the investigative and adjudicative processes for the federal government.
• What does SecEA stand for?
• The policy area 'Safeguarding Classified Information within Industry' corresponds to which E.O.?
• Which tiered investigation supports High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• True or False: Unauthorized disclosure from a Non-Sensitive Position will have no material adverse effect on national security.
• Which are the three domains of Personnel Vetting?
• Which of the following is an area that is allowed to be questioned during background checks?
• Which SEAD number governs the collection, use, and retention of social media?
• What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?
• What is the Privacy Act of 1974?
• What is ICPG 704.6?
• In a DOD national security position designated Special Sensitive, which agency serves as the ISP?
• What did the Civil Service Act of 1883 establish?
• What is the term for a bankruptcy being rejected or the debtor has withdrawn?
• Which term best describes a non-citizen who owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• What is ICPG 704.5?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding reporting requirements for someone with Secret information?
• Define mitigating conditions.
• Which term refers to a formal explanation provided to an individual about proposed adverse actions?
• The beginning of the present-day PSP in the U.S. is based on what Congressional authority?
• Which guidelines cover Allegiance as an adjudicative issue?
• Which credit bureaus does DCSA use?
• A case involves concerns about personal conduct affecting impartiality; which guideline applies?
• What does DOHA stand for?
• The Freedom of Information Act gives the public the right to:
• Which act is credited with curing the abuses of the Spoils System?
• Transferring Responsibility for Background Investigations to the Department of Defense: Which is NOT a type of investigation?
• Which is not a prohibited area of questioning?
• What does DSS stand for?
• Which E.O. was issued on January 17, 2017?
• ANACI stands for?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the military Departments under the direction, authority, and control of which officer?
• Which Executive Order established the SecEA and designated the DNI as the SecEA?
• What is the primary aim of the Hatch Act?
• Define disqualifying conditions.
• February 20, 1960 is the date associated with which E.O.?
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program (NISP))?
• Which guideline is associated with Criminal Activity?
• Which guidelines define the Character adjudicative issue?
• Which guideline addresses Foreign Preference?
• The beginning of one-time access authorization is normally valid for how many days?
• Which of the following abbreviations corresponds to TransUnion in DCSA terminology?
• What are the four major elements of the PSP?
• Which established guideline for reciprocity requires reciprocity between government agencies?
• What does USD(I&S) stand for?
• What does SEAD stand for?
• What does NACI stand for?
• Which statement describes the purpose of the SAP?
• Which tiered investigation uses SF-85?
• SEAD 3 governs what area?
• Can a Subject use multiple short duration accesses within a 12-month period, if necessary?
• Define nolle prosequi.
• DISS stands for?
• Define RSI.
• Which statement best describes the emergency appointment justification?
• An adjudicator receives a report that a government employee downloaded sexually explicit material on a government computer. The adjudicator applied Guideline J - Criminal Conduct. Is this appropriate?
• Which statement best describes the grounds for denial or revocation of a clearance under the Bond Amendment?
• A case concerns alcohol use and its impact on duties; which guideline applies?
• What are the three types of vulnerabilities?
• Which statement about the Bond Amendment is true?
• Which guideline addresses Drug Involvement and Substance Misuse?
• Which tiered investigation does not require re-investigation?
• What is the SF 312?
• One-time access authorization is granted to _________?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report receiving an inheritance of $10,000.
• What does CFR stand for?
• Is an adjudicator allowed to release a PSI directly to the Subject?
• SEAD 7 addresses which concept?
• NBIB stands for?
• What is the primary function of the NBIB?
• Why was the Special Access Program (SAP) established?
• A Subject has two separate DISS Incident Reports. When drafting correspondence in the CLW, you will select Multiple Sources.
• What does FIPC stand for?
• Which SEAD category corresponds to Reciprocity?
• Which Executive Order amended E.O. 10865?
• An adjudicator is the custodian of a PSI, not the owner.
• What is the date associated with E.O. 13467?
• Which policy is associated with the DOD Personnel Security Program?
• Final adjudication of national security determinations is conducted where?
• What is the Position Designation System (PDS) used to do?
• Which E.O establishes that all persons employed by the departments and agencies of the government shall be reliable, trustworthy, of good conduct and character, and of complete and unswerving loyalty to the United States?
• What is 32 CFR Part 117?
• The Scattered Castles database is associated with which ICPG?
• Which statement best describes the PSP's focus on risk?
• Which of the following is a component of the adjudicative guidelines structure?
• Which is not valid proof of U.S. citizenship?
• Which guideline addresses Personal Conduct?
• Which acronym stands for 'Access National Agency Check with Written Inquiries and Credit Check'?
• SEAD 9 provides protection for which group?
• Which case restricted civilians to sensitive positions?
• Define concern in adjudicative guidelines.
• When evaluating foreclosure, do we look at past due amount or balance?
• Which case is associated with the right of the PSP to deny or revoke eligibility due to loyalty concerns?
• What act represents the beginnings of the present-day PSP?
• As a national security adjudicator, you will protect our nation and its government by applying which trio to make unbiased trust determinations?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Public Trust Positions?
• A case involves a candidate's misuse of prescription stimulants; which guideline applies?
• What does DCII stand for?
• Which date is associated with E.O. 12968?
• The adjudicative guidelines structure includes which of the following as NOT a component?
• What are the penalties for unauthorized release or disclosure of protected information?
• April 24, 2019 is associated with which E.O.?
• Which items are components of the Moderate Tier?
• Which SEAD directive addresses ongoing status monitoring during a clearance process?
• The statement: In the PSP, we are only concerned with those weaknesses that could pose an Unacceptable Risk to National Security.
• What act ordered the immediate removal of any person advocating the overthrow the United States?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is the most common?
• Which definition best describes Due Process in adjudicative procedures?
• What is the primary function of the Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS)?
• What is the primary purpose of the USD(I&S) in relation to the DoD PSP?
• What are the four adjudicative issues?
• REO stands for?
• Guideline A addresses which area?
• Which is NOT listed as a component of the High Tier?
• Which of the following options correctly lists the components of the Low Tier?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for National Security Positions?
• Which Executive Order established a uniform federal Personnel Security Program for employees considered for initial or continued access to classified information?
• Name the four position sensitivity levels.
• Which domain focuses on reliability and trustworthiness for government service?
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program?
• In what year was the Freedom of Information Act enacted?
• Which statement about the Hatch Act is accurate?
• Which regulation applies to industry and sets eligibility and safeguarding standards for classified information?
• Any doubt shall be resolved in favor of ______.
• The role of adjudicators and the decisions they make are vital to both national security and which of the following?
• Guideline E addresses which area?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report being contacted by the media when classified information was sought.
• Permanent residents may be given access to SCI in very special circumstances.
• What does CVS stand for?
• Which term describes a briefing conducted when a subject's status changes or ends association?
• SEAD 4 refers to which guidelines?
• What does HSPD-12 stand for?
• NACLC stands for?
• Which case is associated with the denial of national security eligibility based on loyalty concerns?
• The Personnel Security Program (PSP) aims to ensure which attributes for individuals with access to classified information?
• What did the Spoils System entail?
• Appeals will be reviewed by a high-level panel comprised of at least how many members, and how many must be outside the security field?
• In the context of DCSA, what does T/U stand for?
• What can be expected when SCI is released?
• An individual who was dismissed from the Armed Forces for unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations may be a concern under which guideline?
• Which PSI does not support clearance eligibility for military?
• How is the term threat defined?
• Which investigation type is used when adjudicator requires additional investigative information beyond the initial standards?
• Nolo contendere describes which?
• The Position Designation System primarily determines which factor?
• Which case is most closely associated with due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• Which term describes a person who is not a citizen of the United States but owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• What SMO should always be used for Air Force correspondence, if available?
• In security adjudication, what is the main role of an adjudicator?
• Which of the following are components of the High Tier?
• Which of the following is not a common bias?
• Which term describes a background check that combines national agency checks with local agency checks and a credit check?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five personnel vetting scenarios?
• Which statement best describes E.O. 13764?
• What does SII stand for?
• How many domains are defined in Personnel Vetting?
• Which term best describes an unauthorized attempt to access information?
• Who is the ANACI conducted on?
• Which guideline addresses Sexual Behavior?
• Individuals denied eligibility for access should be provided any documents, records, and reports upon which the denial or revocation is based within ___ days upon request.
• In risk context, what best describes the relationship between a threat and a vulnerability?
• Can more than one disqualifying condition apply to a security concern?
• What are the two types of threats?
• Which guideline addresses Financial Considerations?
• What does the investigating agency use to verify U.S. naturalization for Subjects born in a foreign country?
• Which is not an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a public record?
• Which of the following is a correct expansion of the acronym SSBI?
• The FPV guides the transformative efforts to reform the U.S. government personnel security vetting process.
• Which statement best describes the Character adjudicative issue?
• Define drug abuse.
• Which case affirmed that the denial of national security eligibility is based on a judgment call and subject to human error?
• Which option is NOT a background investigation type?
• Define the whole-person concept.
• Which pairing correctly matches position type with its form?
• Which statement best describes 5 CFR Part 732?
• What does FPV stand for?
• Which case affirmed the right of the PSP to deny or revoke a national security eligibility because of questions about loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability, with adjudicators not having to prove anything?
• Which case is significant because it caused the establishment of due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• Who has the final determination on 'due process' appeals?
• Which form is used for Public Trust Positions?
• Which statement best describes Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)?
• What is the effective date associated with E.O. 10450?
• Which guideline addresses Handling Protected Information?
• What is ICD 704?
• Which organization handles the Defense Office of Hearing and Appeals proceedings?
• Define Continuous Evaluation.
• Which Executive Order established security policies designed to protect classified information?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions?
• Which bankruptcy chapter is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• SEAD 6 deals with what?
• Which SEAD directive deals with Whistleblower Protection?
• Which statement best aligns with the whole-person concept regarding information used in determinations?
• Permanent residents may be granted SCI access in very special circumstances.
• Security briefings are a part of what program?
• Dismissed bankruptcy term.
• Which tiered investigation supports Moderate Risk Public Trust Positions?
• Which case established that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• SEAD 5 covers which topic?
• Which case is significant because for civilians, it limits the PSP to sensitive positions?
• Which of the following is a major element of the PSP?
• True or False: An adjudicator must review ROIs for evidence of investigator bias.
• SEAD 2 is associated with which assessment method?
• An Emergency Appointment with security clearance may be granted by whom and under what circumstance(s)?
• What warrants an Interpol Search?
• Continuous Evaluation requires persons who are authorized access to classified information, or perform sensitive duties, to continually meet certain standards of loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability.
• Which Executive Order required an aligned system for all vetting domains?
• Which statement about Interpol searches is accurate?
• Guideline J covers which type of conduct?
• Which type of access is associated with the Low Tier?
• Which executive order created new standards for identifying and protecting classified information?
• LAA cases require a Tier 5 Investigation for adjudication.
• Which E.O amended E.O. 13467 and E.O. 13488?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the following as part of its provisions?
• Which of the following is an exception for granting reciprocity eligibility?
• What is the National Security Act of 1947?
• What does ICPG stand for?
• Which guideline addresses Outside Activities?
• Public Law 110-181, Section 3002 is more commonly known as what?
• Which Executive Order has the effective date April 27, 1953?
• Which of the following acts is NOT listed among the most significant acts in PSP history?
• SEAD 8 relates to which concept?
• The Adjudicative Guideline for determining eligibility for access to SCI and other controlled access is which document?
• Who is not authorized to make national security eligibility determinations based upon a review of the PSI or adverse information referral?
• Which policy documents establish and maintain the DOD personnel security policies and procedures?
• Which guidelines define the Health adjudicative issue?
• Which guidelines define the Behavior adjudicative issue?
• As basic criteria, which two qualifications are required to review the personal information in a PSI?
• Which policy establishes continuous evaluation requirements for individuals who require continued eligibility?
• Which two DOD-specific policies are relevant to our work as national security adjudicators?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• When was the Bond Amendment signed into law and what did it amend?
• A case concerns outside work that could raise conflicts of interest; which guideline applies?
• If a subject is enrolled in CE, when would they need a new investigation?
• TW 2.0 stands for what?
• Which act gave the public the right to access agency records concerning US Government activities?
• Which of the following best describes evaluating information for eligibility under the whole-person concept?
• SOR stands for which of the following in security adjudication?
• What does CATS stand for?
• Which document governs access to SCI?
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which option correctly reflects the scope of responsibilities?
• In adjudicating drug test results, when would no additional information be required?
• In which source document can a list of authorized requesters for PSIs be found?
• What does PSI stand for?
• What can be expected when top secret information is released?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report getting married.
• SEAD 3 governs which aspect of security adjudication?
• Which case held that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• Which of these is not one of the nine adjudicative factors?
• Which guideline addresses Criminal Conduct?
• Which of the following is a type of security briefing?
• Which statement best defines the adjudicative process?
• Which agency verifies U.S. naturalization for foreign-born subjects?
• Which case ruled that falsification of information, regardless of intent, is grounds for denial of national security eligibility?
• What is the most common vulnerability that is exploited?
• The DoD PSP stands for what?
• Fitness adjudication is for industry personnel.
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which of the following are responsibilities of the employing activity?
• Limited Access Authorization is a clearance type for which group?
• Tier 1 is described as 'former NACI'. Which of the following is the correct association?
• What does PPR stand for?
• How many days does an agency have to make a reciprocity determination?
• Which combination of acts is considered most significant to the history of the Personnel Security Program?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by corporations?
• True or False: No investigation can be conducted prior to an individual's 18th birthday.
• Use of Information Technology Systems is part of which adjudicative issue?
• A command may request ___________ of an unfavorable determination 1 year after the date of the individual's denial/revocation.
• Which case is significant because an agency must follow its own regulations, even when those regulations are more restrictive than the law requires?
• Which credential is associated with HSPD-12 CAC Credentialing?
• Simplifying workforce mobility is an improvement implemented under TW 2.0. This statement is:
• Which guideline addresses Alcohol Consumption?
• Which term describes the reciprocity guideline that ensures cooperation across agencies?
• Which of the following is a prohibited investigation technique?
• Which statement about 32 CFR Part 117 is true?
• Which type of threat is associated with individuals within an organization?
• Which of the following is an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• NOT a type of security briefing?
• What does IRTPA stand for?
• What can be expected when secret information is released?
• Which Executive Order focuses on reforming processes related to suitability for government employment, fitness for contractor employees, and eligibility for access to classified information?
• Define the adjudicative process.
• Nolle prosequi description.
• The adjudication facility is best described as which of the following?
• Compulsive gambling may be a symptom of a mental health concern.
• After an unfavorable determination, how many days does the adjudication facility have to update the system of record to reflect current eligibility?
• Which statement about mitigating conditions is accurate?
• A case concerns the management of sensitive case information; which guideline applies?
• SSBI stands for?
• Which tier includes Top Secret and SCI?
• Which authority governs the collection of personal information by the Federal government?
• Which ICPG covers Personnel Security Investigative Standards for Access to SCI?
• According to DSM-5, what is alcohol abuse now called?
• Which guideline addresses Psychological Conditions?
• What does IRTPA stand for?